A question about piece rates and rents of machines

Question

A factory, using valuable machines, pays higher piece rates for workers who produce more pieces than other workers over the same period of time. All workers use the same machines. Is the following statement correct?

Without paying different piece rates the rents of the same machines will not be equal; therefore, it would be inconsistent with the postulate of wealth maximisation.

Answer 1

Some inconvenience in redaction of question forced me to make some suppositions.

I suppose the rent of each machine comes from the productivity of work that those create, but you pay bonus production to your workers.

I suppose difference in habilities of workers to exploit the faculties of machines.

Usually the hability of worker requiered to use machine is too low that this is not a frequent problem seen in companies; but well, you say some workers obtain better results and you pay and extra for it...then the rent is not in machine else in the habilities of worker and the owner of rent is not you, like owner of machine, else worker like owner of habilitties.

Postulate of profit maximisation begin since the principle of equal productivity of each worker so, here we can not apply it.

Usually when and engineer implant a productive process, be care about the level of automatization or role of worker because all the productive process are base on suposition all the worker give the same quantity of work, if this is not happening, then there is something wrong with the conception of productive process. I see in your case the particular habilities of workers are covering you of failure of bad design in productive process. This fact is not a problem when the level of production is low, but when the demand increase the worker get rich and see the posibility to explote you since your need of their habilities to reach the levels of production correspondly to high demand...