AP US please help!?!!!!?

Question

I need help!

The question is:

Why did the Spanish tend to settle and intermarry with the Indian population whereas the English killed the Indians, drove them out, or confined them to separate territories?

PLEASE HELP! I don't usually post for anwers like this but I'm really having trouble, thanks!

Answer 1

This isn't going to be a complete answer since I am having a lot of trouble remembering but I will try, alright?

The English had a superiority complex that was shown even when they invaded Ireland. If you were not English, you weren't equal. English was the thing to be--anything else was vermin. The English viewed the natives as barbarians not to be trusted and merely in the way of their conquest.

The Spanish obviously had a different mindset. I do think they married somewhat out of necessity and due to the fact that there weren't any Spanish females going on those voyages. But I am not quite sure why...

And don't listen to the person below me. I already took AP US and got a three on the exam. The Natives in North America had plenty to trade with the English. In fact, they did trade--but the English made it so they always got the bigger deal. In fact, they got major bargains. On top of that, the English learned how to survive better with the help of the Natives. But the fact was that the natives weren't white and white was supreme.

Answer 2

the first answer is good but i think its missing something

The English killed Indians because they were useless and stupid. They didnt have any gold to trade with. And as the first answer stated they just were in the way.

The Spanish made diplomatic relations with the Indians. The Indians that lived by present day Texas were useful. They traded with the Spanish. And in the process some of the men got married