Here's the follow-up I promised to:
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=AjUPi5vJAy_o_BTk83ybJdHsy6IX;_ylv=3?qid=20080825193804AAlxo3x
You'll want to refer to an old question of mine:
http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=Ah9xLVlW4zrnQiN1iRGUS0nsy6IX;_ylv=3?qid=20080204061908AAh0f3Y
http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/mathforfun/message/13182
Basically, we have a coin which, given that we've tossed it n times and gotten X heads, the probability for heads in the next toss is 1-X/n (and p=1/2 in the first toss).
It's been shown that, for n tosses, X has a distribution that follows
Pr(X=x) = E(n-1,x-1)/(n-1)!
for n>=2, x=1, 2, ..., n-1 and is zero otherwise. Here E(n, k) is an Eulerian number:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eulerian_numbers
However, that may not be too useful here, as I care about sequences.
In sync with the previous few coin questions here, I want to know this: If we flip the coin until the combination THT or TTH shows up, which sequence is more likely to be the end of our coin flipping?
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