I missed the question asked about children "meant to be" adopted by a particular set of adopters. If that were true, then wouldn't the above be as well?
I lost a son to adoption in 1967 because I was unmarried. Did that mean that I was "meant to be" a breeder for my son to be abused by others? what about the Russian children who have died at the hands of their adopters? Were they "meant to be killed"?
Maybe I am missing something in the theory, and it just needs further explanation. However, it seems to me that, by that logic, it is a more direct "meant to be" that an infertile couple is not meant to parent than that a child born to another woman was meant to be that same infertile couple's adopted child. I just don't get it.
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