Hypothetical: A murders B, and goes to trial. A gets convicted and receives the death penalty. We assume his intention was nefarious (it was also illegal--which is why he's being punished). We assume in part that he did it because he is a low life murderer indiferent to the value of others' lives,, so his intention was evil and thus we believe retribution is a just sentence. A is executed, and some people feel better. They couldn't murder him on their own because it's illegal, but the state does. Everyone who feels good about the execution feels the killing proved justice prevailed. But how can we know their intention for wanting the guilty party is a desire for justice. Maybe they are simply bloodthirsty deviants who enjoy watching someone die & this gives them the opportunity. You can't prove it either way because it goes to intention, which can't be proven, and whatever they say, they might be lying. So all things being equal, doesn't the death penalty rest on the assumption that the original killer's action is far worse than the punishment given to him/her even though it's not provable -- (unless maybe the original murderer admitted as much). Again hypothetically, if the prosecutor argues that one of the reasons he wants the convicted murderer executed is because he, the prosecutor, enjoys seeing people die, in fact, its his favorite pastime, can we assume this should have no bearing on the sentencing because again, it's a legal issue, and that part of the intention on the part of the prosecutor is irrelevant, even though it may be unpleasant--assuming it doesn't cloud his prosecutorial abilities.
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