Hi Everyone and thank you all for any response regarding this.
If I "buy to open" a naked(I don't own the shares) Call option contract as my first transaction, and the underlying stock rises or falls and so does my naked Call option contract, now I want to sell this contract because it has increased in value so I "Sell to Close" this naked Call contract, could I ever be assigned? Am I the writer in this case, basically I want to sell the contract with a profit or loss and not have to worry about being assigned, buying or selling stock. I believe if I sell to open I could get assigned but not in the case above. Thanks for any clarification on this.
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