went to a sexual health care center to check for STDs after I was sexually assaulted. A man digitally penetrated my v****a after masterbating.
During my first appointment, I explained to the clinician that I was sexually assaulted by a bisexual male and I was concerned about possibly contracted HIV.
She advised me that I should go to the health department to get tested.
I just received a copy of my complete file that I requested and she wrote down "Advised HIV test for coitus unprotected with bisexual male."
She failed to write down that it was a sexual assault. Now it looks like it was a consentual act. Also, I did not have coitus unprotected. Doesn't she know that a woman can be sexually assaulted without having the attacker insert his p***s into the v****a? Why did she assume it was coitus? I know it is incredibly rare to get HIV from a digital pentration, but there is still a slim chance.
Should I have my record ammended? Also, during my second visit, I explained my assault more in depth to the clinician (a different clinician was working that day). This time I clarified and stated "I was sexually assaulted when a man inserted his finger into my v****a." This time she wrote"Sexual Assault 'He fingered me'"
Now it looks like I had a sexual assualt in which I said "He fingered me" AND a consentual coitus with a bisexual male.
Their use of the term "fingered" makes it look as if I was describing a consentual act. Also, my sexual assault looks less convincing since it appears that I voluntarily had sexual intercourse with a bisexual male.
Should I have it ammended? Why did she assume that "sexual assault" meant vaginal/penile intercourse? One can sexually assault another in numerous ways besides putting his p***s into the v****a.
Thoughts?
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