My apologies in advance if the question is too personal, or comes across as criticizing, that is not my intention
I work part time as a nurse in a maternity ward, and this past weekend, one of the women in our unit was a young Muslim woman who had her first child.
The male nurse in the unit was told that he was not allowed to enter the room or be near the woman or provide care in the nursery for the newborn daughter, even though they were his assigned duties. That was understandable, being that the family seemed very concerned with the women not being seen by other men, and in such a situation, I would prefer to have female physicians/nurses too.
My question is this though: The new mom was in a lot of pain following the delivery. While the baby was in the nursery being taken care of following the delivery, the woman told her dr. of the pain and the physician (female) told her of her options for the pain management. When the woman was situated in her room following recovery, she said that she would like to have something for the pain. I reviewed what she was allowed to have (by the dr.) and after she made her decision, I went to get the medicine. I returned, and she seemed relieved, until her in-laws asked her what she was getting -- she told them, and they said "NO, you cannot have that." They began speaking (in Arabic?) and then the woman, after speaking to her husband(again, not in english), said she was sorry that she had me get the medicine for nothing, but she had a change of heart.
She seemed to genuinely be in a lot of pain, and she made the request herself -- it seemed as though her in-laws were the ones opposed.
Is this an isolated incident, or do the husband and inlaws have a veto power over the decisions of the woman.
We were able to provide her with ice packs and creams (that she only accepted after her mother-in-law looked them over) but it was not what her initial request was for.
Again, I mean no disrespect at all -- I am just trying to gain a better understanding.
Tags: