Question:

Can a currency values of two countries be used to compare their richness?

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For eg: currently 1 USD= 42 Indian ruppees.

Is it that if in one day if 1 USD becomes 1 Indian ruppee, India is as much rich as US?

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  1. no way can you do that. One way to try to compare is to use purchasing parity scale used by the UN World bank


  2. all other things equal, movement in currencies in the manner you have described is either a result of increased wealth by one country, a devaluation of the other's currency, or a combination of both.  you have cited an example that is hard to envision happening quickly without a major catastrophic event in the US economy, since it means things would change by a factor of 42.

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