I previously worked for a doctors office who billed in a way that I thought was wrong. The billing staff would bill Medicare 1 amount for an office visit (say $93.00 for a level 2 E&M) and then would only bill $75.00 to a group insurance, and would bill workers comp $105 for the exact same service. Can a medical provider legally do this? It has always been my understanding that you have to bill all insurance companies the same amount no matter who they are and you have to adjust off the difference of the contracted rate/payment. If this is illegale what would the penalties be (Texas) for a provider doing this? I recently quit working for this medical practice, but I just can't get over the thought that they are doing this totally wrong and could get into a lot of trouble. Apparently though, they have been doing this since they opened back 1995. Any REAL input on this, say a certified medical biller or medical office manager's input would be nice.
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