Condom failure rate?

Question

I've been researching the effectiveness of condoms, and as most individuals know, they have a failure rate of about 1-2% even with perfect use and no breaks or slips. My question is: what is contributing to the failure even if it is used perfectly? A defect during manufacturing? Condoms are water tight, so if water molecules cannot pass through, and viral particles cannot either, how could sperm cells possibly slip through as well? I'm beginning to think that the failure rate is merely a result of a sporadic case of improper use, not a defect during manufacturing or the fictional "small holes" present within condoms.

Answer 1

In theory, they should be 100% effective when used properly. My own theory accounts for the 1-2% failure rate: people lie, underestimate the slightest penetration, and other smaller miscellaneous reasons. My greatest hunch is that people don't want to admit to themselves or others than they have cheated or cut corners. Denial can lead people to never admit things even in complete confidentiality because it would mean acknowledging the undesirable truth.

Answer 2

The condom failure rate is something around 1 in 300,000,000. The human failure rate is higher. The Bush administration's insistence that only abstinence programs be funded in public schools is a big problem.

Answer 3

the thing thats effecting the failure rate is that when u put it on ur supposed to leave a little tip so that u have enough space for your seamen because ur seamen comes out at 65 kph

Answer 4

if tis past its expirary date they become weaker and can break, a doubt manufacturing as imagine the law suits, maybe damage due to rough handling or package breaking,

and no it couldnt pass through unless theres a hole