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How to solve the following objection I have come up with to Descartes' argument that thinking & reasoning is more reliable than sensory-perception? I know that what I say below isn't really what he means but I can't quite figure out a response:If sensory perceptions may be false and unreliable, why is the mind not subject to the same level of dubiousness? For example, a person may be in an altered state of consciousness under the influence of drugs and perceive things that are not really there.Descartes' reply??
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