Question:

Do functions have to be defined at all values of x?

by  |  earlier

0 LIKES UnLike

I'm observing a function that doesnt and undefined y value at x=0.

Is it still classified as a function?

 Tags:

   Report

2 ANSWERS


  1. no

    th definition is that a function for every x has just one y

    an example of a non function y=1/x or  is y =√ ( x -3)

    they have "holes" or asymptotes or nothing for y given x.

    try 0 in 1/x doesnt work

    try -4 in the √x-3 wont work.


  2. You can have holes in the domain.  Happens all the time.  Like, for instance, f(x) = 1/x is undefined at x = 0.  All you have to have for a function is an unambiguous relationship.  One value in the domain leads to only one value in the range.  That value can certainly be "undefined".

Question Stats

Latest activity: earlier.
This question has 2 answers.

BECOME A GUIDE

Share your knowledge and help people by answering questions.