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i mean its smart of jk rowling to think that up but its a bit dodgy isnt it. for example: 3rd book - harry, ron and hermione expelliarmus snape so does that make his wand theirs?3rd book - lupin expelliarmus' harry ron and hermione so does that make their wands his?4th book - harry's expelliarmus curse won over voldemort's avada kedavra.then shouldnt lupins, snapes and voldemorts wand all not be working for them?
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