Explain philosophy is "no man's land"?

Question

Explain philosophy is "no man's land"?

Answer 1

no man or(woman) has the right to interfere with ones thoughts...therefore ----no mans land...its open to all.

Answer 2

"No man's land" may refer to many things which have different characteristics to relate to "Philosophy". If you meant the same explanation about "No man's land" explained below, my explanation for your question followed after this explanation:

The term "No man's land" was first used for a vast wasteland outside the north walls of London where criminals were executed. Often the rotting bodies of these hanged, impaled, and beheaded criminals were left in the open in full display, as a warning to potential lawbreakers. This area came to be known as "no-man's land" since no one would seek to claim this land for ownership.

If the phrase "No man's land" will be used as an adjective to describe something, it would mean "no one want's to claim or own that 'something' ". So in your question "Explain why Philosophy is "No man's land?", my explanation is this:

If you want to know why Philosophy is described as "No man's land" or let me say "Philosophy has no one to claim or own that he/she is the owner/founder of Philosophy", this is because no writings existed which had an indication informing the readers about someone claiming that he/she is the founder of Philosophy (e.g. "I made Philosophy." or "I am the founder Philosophy."); if you will based the determination of a founder from the time it began as a branch of study/science. In fact, if you will read the History of Philosophy, there was no accurate date or time when Philosophy began.