Forward Contracts?

Question

Can someone explain to me the difference between forward prices, pre-paid forward prices, theoretical forward price (assuming they give you an interest rate) and tell me how the specifics on what happens (who gets paid, who pays, ect.) I am taking my first actuarial exam in a few days, and I am a little unclear about this subject, apart from making calculations.

Answer 1

from wikapedia

A forward contract is an agreement between two parties to buy or sell an asset (which can be of any kind) at a pre-agreed future point in time. Therefore, the trade date and delivery date are separated. It is used to control and hedge risk, for example currency exposure risk (e.g., forward contracts on USD or EUR) or commodity prices (e.g., forward contracts on oil).

One party agrees (obligated) to sell, the other to buy, for a forward price agreed in advance. In a forward transaction, no actual cash changes hands. If the transaction is collateralized, exchange of margin will take place according to a pre-agreed rule or schedule. Otherwise no asset of any kind actually changes hands, until the maturity of the contract.

The forward price of such a contract is commonly contrasted with the spot price, which is the price at which the asset changes hands (on the spot date, usually two business days). The difference between the spot and the forward price is the forward premium or forward discount.

A standardized forward contract that is traded on an exchange is called a futures contract.

Example of how the payoff of a forward contract works

Suppose that Bob wants to buy a house in one year's time. At the same time, suppose that Andy currently owns a $100,000 house that he wishes to sell in one year's time. Both parties could enter into a forward contract with each other. Suppose that they both agree on the sale price in one year's time of $104,000 (more below on why the sale price should be this amount). Andy and Bob have entered into a forward contract. Bob, because he is buying the underlying, is said to have entered a long forward contract. Conversely, Andy will have the short forward contract.

At the end of one year, suppose that the current market valuation of Andy's house is $110,000. Then, because Andy is obliged to sell to Bob for only $104,000, Bob will make a profit of $6,000. To see why this is so, one needs only to recognize that Bob can buy from Andy for $104,000 and immediately sell to the market for $110,000. Bob has made the difference in profit. In contrast, Andy has made a loss of $6,000.

[edit] Example of how forward prices should be agreed upon

Continuing on the example above, suppose now that the initial price of Andy's house is $100,000 and that Bob enters into a forward contract to buy the house one year from today. But since Andy knows that he can immediately sell for $100,000 and place the proceeds in the bank, he wants to be compensated for the delayed sale. Suppose that the risk free rate of return R (the bank rate) for one year is 4%. Then the money in the bank would grow to $104,000, risk free. So Andy would want at least $104,000 one year from now for the contract to be worthwhile for him - the opportunity cost will be covered.

Bob, as any other buyer would, will seek the lowest price he can for the contract - although as we've seen, there is an invisible lower limit of $104,000 that Andy will not go below. As a result, the contract price would be at least $104,000 or it will not happen at all.

this is a complex topic for sure..  but the agreement is made and money paid in advance for a future delivery....

good luck in your exam