Question:

Geneva Conventions: If using a uniformed standing army, attack a country subdue its army, leave only militi?

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Why do those persons then get denied the Geneva Conventions, be detained as terrorists, despite no court in any land having yet proven that they are. Especially if the country that was invaded then is shown not to have supported terrorism in the first place.

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  1. Well, with a rambling, non-coherent question like that, it's a little hard.

    I will point out that of course people are detained as terrorists without having gone to court.  Every country I know of detains murderers, thieves, etc. before they go to court.  That's how you keep them from running away.  

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