Hitler had overwelming mandate in Germany. Yet this was achieved via murder and blatant deception. If?

Question

Hitler's deceptions disqualify that mandate, does this then exhonerate the same public from war guilt?

Answer 1

Further to Hamster_99's excellent answer.

Hitler's rise to power was not all deception, murder and violence.  He won elections - not always fairly, but he still won them.  Millions of Germans voted for him, and most of them cast their votes because they thought that Hitler was the man to fix Germany's problems.  So the election results should stand.

But the was began some 5 1/2 years after Hitler came to power - and some 5 after the enabling act, so they didn't necessarily vote for war (or for the Holocaust) just for a strong Germany.

The blame for the war and Holocaust lies at the feet of Hitler and the upper echelons of the n**i party.

Answer 2

Hitler himself said "The bigger the lie, the more people will believe it." I think that qualifies the German people of that era as victims, and not to be blamed for WWII.  

Answer 3

hello

the Nuremberg Trails set this ruling ....

"The fact that a person acted pursuant to order of his Government or of a superior does not relieve him from responsibility under international law, provided a moral choice was in fact possible to him."

and the fact that many german soldiers refused unlawful orders ... without negative repurcussions ... there is ample proof that there was no "i had to do it else i'd be shot" scenarios

so anyone, soldier or civilian in germany that commited a war crime was blatantly guilty of the crime, and totally legible for punishment !