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How, originally, did the royal family come into hereditary possession of the Crown Estates?

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How, originally, did the royal family come into hereditary possession of the Crown Estates?

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  1. Their ancestors had more soldiers,and were more corrupt than others!


  2. When King William I (William the Conqueror) conquered England after the Battle of Hastins in 1066, he effectively aquired all the land in the country as his own. The Crown Estate then passed through the line of succession to the next King or Queen and so on. However, over time, parcels of land were granted to nobles and barons (and they could then sell their holdings to third parties) reducing the Crown Estate to its current position. However the Crown retains ultimate ownership of all the land in the UK.

    The revenues of the Crown lands were used to pay for government, as the monarch was responsible for running the country and paid for the courts, armed forces etc.

    George III surrendered the revenues of the Crown Estate to the government, in return for a civil list payment and the government took on all responsbility for the administration of the country. At the begining of each reign, the new monarch is asked to continue this arrangement- and so far none have refused, even though the £200m the Crown Estate returns in profit each year far exceeds the Civil List payment.

    So essentially it was right of conquest that the Royals aquired the Crown Estate- although they do not benefit today from its income sources- the government does.


  3. Originally, in exactly the same way as all other aristocrats - stolen from a terrorised people by armed force.

    The hereditary posession would then continue until removed from the royal family by other, more powerful and usually usurping thugs, should any be in a position to do so (as, for example, during the Wars of the Roses).

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