How come so many S.A countries speak Spanish,but only Brazil speaks Portugese?

Question

Why did the Portugese colonize only Brazil?

Answer 1

Because the other countries were "discovered' and claimed for Spain by Spanish explorers.  Brazil was "discovered' and claimed by a Poruguese explorer.  Just like we speak English in the U.S. because the majority fo first settlers were from Englan and claimed the land for England.

Answer 2

"Only Brazil" is half South American territorry and half South American population. The fact that Brazil evantually became indepedent as a single country does not mean that Brazil is "only". A

Anyway, the reason is given by Travel Expert. But today's territorry of Brazil is bigger of the one determined by the Tordesilhas treat. The Spanish weren't able to guarantee their rights over the entire area, so the Portugueses took advantage. Today's territory of Brazil was determined by the Madrid treat of 1750. Check the map.

http://www.arara.fr/Tratados.jpg

And in 1903 Brazil bought the state of Acre from Bolivia.

Answer 3

When Portugal and Spain "conquered" America, they start fighting over territorial rights. They solved this at the Treaty of Tordesillas where they "drew" an imaginary line in South America and whatever was on the left belonged to the Spanish crown and whatever was on the right belonged to the Portuguese crown. Little did the Portuguese know that on the right of the line of Tordesillas lied the Amazon basin!!! So, the only habitable territory they got was what we know as Brazil and the Spanish king got the rest (aka Chile, Peru, Argentina, Colombia, venezuela, Uruguay, Paraguay, Ecuador, Bolivia).Thus, portuguese is spoken in Brazil and Spanish in the rest of countries.