Example: I buy home for $500,000 on an interest-only bridge loan (owner financing) for a period of 3 years (have to get it financed by another lender at end of 3 years), and have $60,000 to put down on the refinance at the end of 3 years. This leaves $440,000 to get financed after 3 years. If the house is appraised at $540,000 at that time, does the bank look at it like they are really approving me for financing in the amount of $300,000 rather than $440,000 since I have $140,000 in equity?
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