How does durkheim feel about social inequality?

Question

does he feel that everyone is equal? pleasee thats the question i need answered, im a little confused wether he thinks we are all equal or not.

Answer 1

"Modern Explanations of Social Inequality

functional theory of stratification: Davis and Moore; necessity of differential rewards for positions based on scarcity of personnel and functional importance (influenced esp. Durkheim)

social reproduction theory (Marx): Bourdieu; MacLeod; Bowles and Gintis; cultural capital; schools and families reproduce inequality across generations

Lenski's evolutionary theory (power determines distribution of surplus)

labor market theories (how individuals are located in labor markets and earnings)"

Answer 2

The last answer is WRONG: he was NOT part of the Davis/Moore school of thought! The Functional Theory of Stratification wasn't even published until 1937: 20 years after Durkheim died. If they were influenced by Durkheim, they must have twisted the heck out of his writings because Davis/Moore pretty much single-handedly killed functional theory.

Durkheim was not a "functionalist" per se, but he was definitely not a conflict theorist either. He didn't talk much about inequality, but when he did, he mostly just acknowledged its existence. He did think that social control/authority was important, and I imagine he would see social inequality as part of that system. Either way, he's definitely not recognized for his thoughts on social inequality - he's most famous for his thoughts on modernity and religion.

Edit: He acknowledged that inequality did exist. So no, he did not think everyone was equal.

Edit2: I also just read that as a Jewish man in his era, he was politically sympathetic to Socialism. If that's true (you never know with Wikipedia), it means that he not only acknowledged inquality, but was very opposed to it. Further evidence that he was NOT a functionalist.