How was 600-1450 and 1450-1750 largely agricultural? HELP PLEEEEEEEASE!?

Question

Please provide percentages of the number of farmers in both eras, or the percentage of people in rural areas.

Also, what they traded etc.

Im soooo confused, I've been trying to look this up for a few hours now.

Answer 1

Wow, from about 600-1450, was what we refer to as the middle ages in European history.

These were characterized in large part by the collapse of the Roman empire and it's vestigial structures by about 600 ad, this would have been the "low" point of production of farm goods and civilization, commonly referred to as the dark ages, slowly the feudal system was created, with lords and kings, and regional conflicts and the development of the nation state. Increasing farmer production helped nations "out produce" one another, largely more food = more people. The elites of these ages, (merchants and princes mostly) funded the renaissance - an age of relative enlightenment and prosperity.

After about 1450 and the invention of the printing press and a growing skilled labor force, nations quickly started to diversify based on how skilled their labor forces were in addition to food production.  

In / about the time of 1450 the end of Islam in Europe meant that some military expenditures could be spent on scientific explorations, Columbus's rediscovery of a route to the Americas, meant that initially Spain benefited entirely from contact with the new world.  

This affected agriculture in a couple of ways, increasing scientific knowhow and industrial production after 1450 (think of the 1400-1700 era as a water-powered, wood based industrial revolution) in a way. A benefit of scientific classifications and such was a studied approach to farming , where the idea of crop rotation and fertilization came into play. After these two innovations, farming became significantly more productive per acre, and as before, more food helped increase the number of people in the given countries.

To back up, it's also important to understand that warfare was also conducted differently in these two time frames and that's VERY important considering that war was always "total" war involving the whole of the countries involved. All able bodied young men were forced to war given swords and sent to battle.  

From 600-1450 the weaponry available consisted of swords, and bows and arrows which involve certain tactics and long training times to use. Swords and pikes involve close combat and high mortality.

in 1450-1750 weaponry began to change with the introduction of gunpowder, a single soldier with relatively low training could kill much more effectively at range, so wars became more bloody per man and involved less of the peasantry/common people and more the professional soldier. This affected farming again because unless your country was invaded unless you were drafted/conscripted you could stay on the farm.

In 1350-1450 the Black Death / Bubonic plague eliminated almost 30% of Europe's people by 1450 the remaining 2/3 were happy to be free of the plague , and relatively well off in relation to the peers of just 50 years earlier.

The discovery of America , allowed Spain in particular but Europe in general to continue with policies that would have probably resulted in a perpetual swing between war and peace.