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I need help on comparing Egypt and Greek in their relative persistence as a political unit vs cultural forms?

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need help for my final tomorrow it's an emergency question help?

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  1. The Greek world was never politically united. Even at the time of the macedonian conquests by Alexander, Magna Graecia wasn't under his control (southern italy and parts of sicily).

    Egypt has been a political unity for most of it's history, eventhough sometimes only as a province of a persian, macedonian, roman, arabian or british empire. The only exceptions i can think off are:

    -the divide between Lower Egypt (the north) and southern egypt.

    -egypt was ruled by nubian pharaoh's for a while. I can imagine that empire not beeing large enough to be formally split in two.

    Now about culture...

    the egyptian culture has persisted in one way or another untill the conquest by the arabs. Just look at the writings. Demotic was still recognisable egyptian.

    the greek culture...well. It's influence till this date is larger than that of the egyptian culture, i figure. So in a way, it's still persisting ;). When the Romans conquored Greece and Magna Graecia, the Greek culture conquored the Romans. So if you, really want to put a date on it...why not the fall of Byzantium (1453)?  

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