If you are married to the decease but all debts were incurred prior to the marriage, is wife liable to pay?

Question

If you are married to the decease but all debts were incurred prior to the marriage, is wife liable to pay?

Answer 1

how old are the debts?  i do believe the statute of limitations on debts is 4 years...aside from that, i don't believe you are responsible for them, however, depending on who he was indebted to, they could come after the estate.  (ie.) IRS, back child support, etc....i would check with an attorney, just to make sure.  whatever you do, don't pay on anything, until you've checked with an attorney.  if you make a payment on something that  has reached the 4 year statute of limitations, the loan then becomes active again.  

Answer 2

ONLY if the deceased has the money to pay for from his "estate".

Who is the executor of his will?

You should contact an attorney who specializes in wills and estate law.

Answer 3

Yes you are still liable unless he has means to pay after his death (insurance, inheritance, etc).

Answer 4

You owe nothing personally but his medical and funeral bill if it didn't have your name on it you owe nothing.

Answer 5

Yes she is

Answer 6

no they arnt i am a collector for 5 years and they are no longer valid unless you speak with the loan people and tell them you will pay then they have a right to try to collect on you but legally they cant do anything about it. unless its a car loan where its not paid off then you have to give it back or pay it yourself to keep it

Answer 7

yes...it comes out of the husband's estate...no way around it.

Answer 8

yes unfortunately she is:) unless the man was like my dad and had every little thing in his name and had nothing but the home in both there names than she is not because my mom was only responsible for the home and nothing else!

Answer 9

It depends on the debt and if the assets are in both of your names.  More details are really needed to make a true assessment.

Answer 10

Yep.  You married him and his debts.