I'm asking because of this guy:
http://www.timesonline.co.uk/tol/news/uk/article3368047.ece
If he asked for a ban, and had then gone in and gambled and *won* a lot of money, but the bookmakers asked for it back because he was supposed to be banned, he may not have been quite so keen for his bets to be seen as being invalid. But because he lost, the bookmaker is supposed to return the money from the bets. Surely, the ban would be very hard to enforce anyway, as bookies often have different staff on, and you can always go in when people who don't know you are there, or go to a different bookies.
What are your opinions?
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