.............would they be legally valid and the would the bookies have to pay out?
what i mean is this:
Federer is 4/5 to win Wimbledon outright. I only want to bet on Federer to win tomorrow's match (for which he is 1/14).
Now, if I write 'Federer to beat Ancic' on the betting slip, and Ms Naive Betting Assistant checks her outright prices instead of the match prices and writes '4/5' on the betting slip, must they pay out at this superior price to me if Mr federer wins the match?
Only answer if you know for sure, and have the evidence
cheers
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