In achieving clearly defined mutual goals, is complete agreement between parties required??

Question

The negative is implied in <>http://concurrentconcepts.com>

Answer 1

You didn&#039;t specify whether their lack of agreement concerns what the goals are or if the goals were met.

If you meant what the goals are there is no way on earth they can be met.  If due to a language barrier, two different professions using the same word with different meanings, etc. even though both parties are acting in good faith they will have different criteria.

If you mean if the goals were met things aren&#039;t as clear.  For example when buying a house local custom which applicances stay with the home and which go with the seller.  So, if I, a resident of state Y, in good faith agree to buy a house in state X I expect the oven to be included because that is the custom in state Y.  The seller, on the other hand, expects to take the oven with him because that is the custom in state X.

As far as the seller is concerned the goal is met -- the house is sold.

As far as the buyer is concerned the goal is not met -- he has to go out and purchase an oven.

Hope this helps

Jerry-the-bookkeeper

Answer 2

Complete agreement to the contract is required.

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