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Infield fly rule: Can the infield fly rule be in effect with no runner on 1st but runners on 2nd and 3rd?

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What about just a runner on 3rd, no one on first?

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  1. No, because the whole point of the IFL is that there's a force out. Unless there's a runner at first, there's no force out, so if the fielder intentionally drops the ball, nobody has to advance.

    See http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Infield_fly... for more info.


  2. No on both because there is no force play.

  3. no cause thers no force there needs to be a force  

  4. no possible force play anywhere. there has to be a runner on first for a force play. For the infield fly to happen, runners can be anywhere, but there has to be at least one at first

  5. There must be a force play.

  6. No.

    Answer mine! http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;...

  7. Nope, there must be a force play at third or the bases must be loaded with less than 2 outs.

  8. Hella no, no force play

  9. No.

  10. Not possible.  The infield fly rule is with runners on first and second OR first, second and third with less than 2 outs.  However, there are more stipulations to the rule.  The ball must be adjudged by the umpire to be a fly ball that can be caught with normal effort by an infielder.  Therefore, a ball hit to the shallow outfield may fall under the infield fly rule if the infielders are playing deep.  Example the overshifts a lot of teams use where they place the second baseman in shallow right field.  Also the ball must be a fair ball before the infield fly rule is in effect.  Finally, a bunted ball DOES NOT fall under the infield fly rule.

    The infield fly rule does not make a play dead, runners may advance at their own risk.  Therefore, if interference occurs on an infield fly rule play, the infield fly rule is overridden and the interference play takes precedence.  In this case the play will be dead due to the interference.  

  11. the easy way to remember this is, there must be a force at third for the infield fly rule to be in effect!!!
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