Question:

International agreement - which country's law applies?

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I am a Greek freelance translator and I received an agreement from an American agency that I have to sign before starting the project. There is a term in this agreement which is abusive according to the Greek law. Specifically, it says that I will get paid when their customer approves and accepts the translation. (Which means if they don't approve it, I will not get my money). How can I know which law applies? Thanks

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  1. "How can I know which law applies?"

    Because it should say so in the contract. "This agreement shall be interpreted and enforced under the laws of the State of Delaware" or something like that.

    If the contract is silent, then you could sue them in Greece if you chose to, and you might even get a judgment. But then what? They are in America, and a Greek court has no power to compel them to pay - you'd need to bring your Greek judgment to their State and have it domesticated anyway.

    Best just to assume that if you're not paid you're going to have to sue in the US anyway, because that's where your clients money is.

    I'd note, of course, that the agency isn't going to get paid until their client accepts your work, so if the end client declines it, the agency has the motivation - and easier access to the local courts - to sue them, after which you'd get paid too.

    Richard

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