Is it clear from this verse that the Bible does not condone slavery (forced servitude)?

Question

http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=ex.%2021:16;&version=31;

Thank you very much in advance for your answer.

Answer 1

No.

Answer 2

No. It mentions what should happen to the kidnapper, nt the slave or whoever bought them.

Answer 3

It would, if there weren't other verses that say it's allowed.

Answer 4

In the Old Testament:

Leviticus 25:44-46 states that slaves may be owned, bought, and sold like livestock.  Exodus 21:7-11 authorizes buying women and using them as s*x slaves.  Exodus 21:20-21 authorizes beating slaves, even to death as long as they don't die for the first two days after the beating.

In the New Testament:

Ephesians 6:5 commands slaves to serve their masters as they serve Christ.  I Timothy 6:1-2 requires that Christians who are slaves serve their masters with full respect lest Christ be shamed by their poor performance.

That sure sounds like condoning slavery to me, I don't see how a "servant" would be some one you owned, could pass on to your kids, force into your bed, sell, or beat to death with impunity.

Answer 5

That is not the only way to obtain a slave. It is the immoral way. Sometimes people would enter willfully into slavery to work off a debt or because they just were not capable of supporting themselves. They were not kidnapped or purchased.  

Answer 6

No, it condemns kidnapping. Submitting yourselves to one another (Eph 5:20) does a much better (but not perfect) job of condemning slavery.

Answer 7

yes but in the old testament it talks about the treatment of slaves that at that time the word meant indentured servants but the protestants said it meant slavery was justified and started the black slave market