Question:

Is it possible that lender requires 20% down payment and agent collect 25% as down payment?

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lender requiring 20% of sale price as down payment. Broker agent misled his client and inform him that lender changed his mind on the last hour and now 25% is needed for down payment. How broker can legally pocket 5% like that?

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  1. It's not clear where you are, but in the US the buyer deals directly with the lender.  I fail to see why the broker should be involved in the loan process in anything other than a tangential way.  

    Also in the US, the broker has to clearly list his charges in writing.


  2. Don't think he misled them.  20% is probably required by the lender.  The other 5% is probably the closing costs.  Also, all this is disclosed before the client signs.  They can always walk away.

  3. The broker isn't pocketing ANY money like that.   Look at the disclosure statement.  THAT is where the money is going.

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