Is it possible that the result is a loss in a efficiency?

Question

Suppose a monopolist is practicing price discrimination and a lawsuit against the monopolist forces an end of the practice. Is it possible that the result is a loss in a efficiency? Explain.

Answer 1

No one will be able to answer your question... it lacks sufficient detail.

What do you mean by "efficiency"? Do you mean productive efficiency i.e. selling a product at the lowest average total cost. Because if you do, the monopolist who is price discriminating could not be productively efficient.

More detail is needed for an answer.