Question:

Is the existence of Proto Indo European language and Indo Europeans a hypothesis only?

by  |  earlier

0 LIKES UnLike

Is there a genetic, not linguistic proof that there were Indo Europeans and then they splitted into different nationalities?

 Tags:

   Report

3 ANSWERS


  1. Yes, there is a very distant relation between all Indo European peoples. Most or all of the Indo European peoples are considered Caucasoid.


  2. What language people speak has got NOTHING to do with their genetic makeup, but all with their history. Otherwise US citizens would be all Anglo-Saxons, which they clearly aren't. We have no means of ascertaining which language people spoke once they are dead, and although there are convincing features in the development of Indo-European languages to show that they must have a common root there is nothing that can give us conclusive proof of a common ethnicity that went with the language, although it is reasonable to assume that there was, at least for a time. Celtic languages, by the way, ARE part of that Indo-European family.

    There are genetic research results that can be interpreted in this way, but nothing really that is above a hypothesis.

  3. Yes, there's a large amount of Indo European DNA as far West as northern India, to match the spread of the Indo European language. You get the odd blond Indian and Pakistani as result. Mostly you're looking at expansion from places like Iran and the countries South/West of the Black sea. Theseare the most likely point of origin for Indo Europeans. It shows up in the DNA of North Indians and Pakistanis quite a bit. The spread of Y-chromosome DNA haplogroup R1a1 particularly has been associated with the spread of the Indo-European languages.

    http://64.233.183.104/search?q=cache:Ouu...

    http://www.genomenewsnetwork.org/article...

    Northern Europeans only speak an Indo European language though, courtesy of the Romans. We are genetically Celtic, more like the old Cro magnon people. The Indo Europeans spread into Europe really only affected the southern countries as far as population goes. Places like Italy and Greece, as can be shown by the Y chromosome haplotypes.

    Below, is correct, but Celtic isn't as closely related as the Latin derived language we speak now. It was 'the first wave', Latin is later.

    http://www.danshort.com/ie/

    The Hittites in ancient Turkey spoke an Indo European language.

    Indo European  probably spread westwards from Anatolia with the spread of farming.

Question Stats

Latest activity: earlier.
This question has 3 answers.

BECOME A GUIDE

Share your knowledge and help people by answering questions.
Unanswered Questions