Question:

Is the lack of a standard a standard it's self?

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One of my friends asked me this, and I wasn't sure how to answer him. What is your opinion? I would think that if the lack of a standard was a standard then we couldn't have the lack of the standard making this an impossible question because it's a paradox. And ideas?

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  1. It is axiomatic that the lack of a standard assumes there are no measurement of any phenomena, physical or otherwise. The postulate of your friend is nonsense.


  2. Yes- it's called having low standards, or no standards at all.

  3. It is not a paradox. You have to start with a definition of the word standard. Here is one definition of it

    something established by authority, custom, or general consent as a model or example : criterion

    In order for something to be a standard a group of people has to agree on it. The lack of standard is the opposite of well, a standard. A lack of standards cannot be a standard on itself because it does not follow strick rules. Every body does it differently. Therefore is not a standard. Simply put, a lack of standard is not a standard itself because it brakes the definition of what a standard is.  

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