Jewish Law vs. Other Ancient Laws?

Question

I have a worksheet due about religions and this is one of my questions that I can't find an answer to:

What made Jewish law different form other ancient law codes?

A - It claimed to be received from a deity.

B - It was presented in writing.

C - It made no distinction between religious and secular differences.

D - It was a vengeance code, an "eye for an eye and a tooth for tooth"

Answer 1

Check out Hammurabi's code and compare that to the jews

Answer 2

Lets use the process of elimination:

answer d is not correct because Jews do not follow the Hamurabi Code, which states "an eye for an eye, etc.."

answer a is not correct because a lot of Jewish law is taken and interpreted directly from the Torah, which is not all the word of God (although mostly was directed by God to various prophets for recording)

answer b sounds like it could be correct, but not all Jewish law is in writing. Although a lot is derived from the Torah, most of it is also oral, passed down from generation to generation.

In my opinion, the correct answer is d, because in Judaism, there is no clear and distinct separation between a secular life and a religious life. For a devout Jew, your entire life revolves around Judaism, and you are to live by all of its laws, including things like keeping kosher, daily prayers, and respecting your mother and father

Answer 3

The answer would be A.  The Code of Hammurabi and earlier codes were written by kings.

By the way, although the Torah does say "an eye for an eye" and so on, this was **never** taken literally.  The rabbis interpreted this to mean monetary damages equivalent to that of a lost eye, tooth, etc.