Modern anthropology places human settlement in the New World at roughly 20,000 years. By 1500, unique indigenous language families in the Americas number over 150. By comparison, Europe which had been settled by modern humans for over 40,000 years boasts only 4 unique language families (IE, Altaic, Uralic, and Basque). And Africa, which has been settled by modern humans for over 400,000 years, boasts only 5 unique language families. If all language families in the New World developed from people who crossed over the humble Bering Strait land bridge, how is it they cannot be genetically linked to each other, thus constituting one large language family (counter-parallel: Austronesian family, spreading from one island to many about 5,000 years ago, has not evolved into different families despite geographic separation)? Are they indeed related, but we just lack the evidence to prove it? Does this phenomenon directly challenge the very idea of genetic classification of languages?
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