Question:

Math problem again!?

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Divide by check.

8x^8 - 36^x6 + 20x / 4x

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  1. I hope you mean (8x^8 - 36x^6 + 20x)/(4x)

    If it is like that, the answer goes like this...

    First you subtract 1 from all the x's powers. Why? Because the dividing x has a power of 1. Dividing a given variable to any power by the same variable to any power is the same as subtracting the divider power from the dividend power. Also, when there is fraction, remember to do the same in both sides, so, when subtracting 1 from the powers of x's in the dividend, do the same to the x's in the divisor. So the x below will cancel too.

    So, (8x^(8-1) - 36x^(6-1) + 20x^(1-1))/(4x^(1-1)) ; remember that x^0=1, and that any number times 1 will result in said number, so basically just cancel the variables with powers of 0.

    (8x^7 - 36x^5 + 20)/(4) ; now distribute the 4

    ((8/4)x^7 - (36/4)x^5 + (20/4))/(4/4) ; now solve, same thing, when a fraction has a divisor of 1, you can just write the dividend.

    (2x^7 - 9x^5 + 5)

    That's about it.

    Now lets check. I check giving x a certain value. Lets try 1 now.

    Original =

    (8*1^8 - 36*1^6 + 20*1)/4*1 ; 1 to any power is 1

    (8*1 - 36*1 + 20*1)/4*1 ; solve, any number multiplied by 1 is the same number

    (8 - 36 + 20)/4 ; solve inside parenthesis

    -8/4 ; solve

    -2

    Now lets check the answer.

    (2*1^7 - 9*1^5 + 5) ; 1 to any power is 1

    (2*1 - 9*1 + 5) ; any number multiplied by 1 is the same number

    2-9+5

    -7+5

    -2

    They coincide. Kudos, it's correct.  

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