I am very confused by my eye doctor. During my recent vision test, I showed him my last prescription from two years ago. He said, "Oh, we write ours differently here." He tried to explain but I didn't get it. For example, he showed me how he would've written that last prescription:
Old doctor wrote OD -7.25, +0.50 axis 110; OS -7.00, +2.25 axis 085. New doctor said his version of the same prescription was OD -6.75,-0.50, x020; OS -4.75, -2.25, x175.
Huh? To a layperson, those look like two entirely different prescriptions, don't they? But they're the same. The doctor even wrote on the slip "2006" to show me that what he'd written was a translation of my old prescription.
I am asking for more than just curiosity. Basically, I'm unhappy with his optical shop -- over the past two months, they've done everything wrong with my new glasses and I'm about to go somewhere else. Everything = their screwups have caused two remakes and I'm still not seeing right. I think my prescription is right, it's just that the frames and lenses are junk and they won't admit they used the wrong PD. But I'm not sure how to tell a new optician to translate my new prescription, which according to the new doctor is OD -6.75, -0.50 x 015; OS -5.00, -2.25, x174.
I used up my insurance benefits on this junk, and if i can avoid paying out of pocket for a new eye exam before I go to a new optician and pay out of pocket for new glasses, that would be great.
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