My husband has been at his employers for 5 and half years. He was told today that he was to be made redundant. He knew redundancies were to be made in his dept. There are 17 people in his dept in total. We thought he would be safe as he is good at his job. He works hard, always does overtime and is very conscientious. Anyway, we are understandably completely gutted.
Thing is, they made redundancies a couple of years back and the company decided on this girl, who happens to be deaf. She is absolutely c**p at her job, is hardly ever in and is always making mistakes - which has nothing to do with whether she can hear or not. Anyway, she turned it all around and got them to retract it claiming they were only getting rid of her because she was deaf. So does this mean my husband has been a victim of "positive discrimination"? So, because he can hear, they feel they can get rid of him over her, whereas because she is deaf they are frightened incase she threatens to sue them again. Does this make sense? Does he have a case with the citizens advice do you think? He has proof she is worse at her job than he is. Sorry this is so long, thanks for your patience and your opinions. UK answers only please. xx
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