I understand that negative gearing is where an investor buys an asset using borrowed funds, and the cost of owning the asset are more then the income from the asset. I'm just having problems understanding how this is an advantage, even if the investor has a decresed tax rate, will this make up the difference in the loss generated by the loan. Surely it won't be enough to actually make a profit. Or is it all just based on the assumption that the asset will increase in value overtime?
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