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Okay, I'm sorry if this is a stupid question, but in my Euro textbook it tells me that there was stable population growth in Europe in the eleventh and twelfth centuries due to more opportunities in commerce and agricultural advancements. i want to know why. After all, in America where we are very technologically advanced family size steadily decreased. So why is it that their families grew? Wouldn't more efficient methods mean less kids needed to work?
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