My understanding of a short sale is that the owner of a property has defaulted on the loan, and the bank has agreed to sell the property for less than the owner owes.
So my question is, can the owner owe MORE than the purchase price of the house? For example, the house was bought 5 years ago for $100,000, and now it is for sale at $101,000, so how is that a short sale for the bank? I mean, they are selling it for MORE than it was bought originally. Is the bank really taking a loss?
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