How can Mary be sinless?

Question

Okay, this question is REALLY bothering me.

This was an answer that was given on a Catholic bulletin board where this subject is being discussed:

Jesus held to it and specifically revealed to Sr. Lucy at Tuy on May 29, 1930, that there are blasphemies committed against the Immaculate Heart of Mary.

"My daughter, the reason is simple. There are five types of offenses and blasphemies committed against the Immaculate Heart of Mary:

1. Blasphemies against the Immaculate Conception

2. Blasphemies against Her Perpetual Virginity

3. Blasphemies against Her Divine Maternity

4. Blasphemies of those who publically seek to sow in the hearts of children indifference or scorn or even hatred of this Immaculate Mother

5. The offenses of those who outrage Her in Her Holy Images"

So my question is, who is this guy, Sr. Lucy at Tuy, that Jesus would speak to him and how do we know it was Jesus?

If Mary was sinless, was she immaculately conceived, and how does she escape what is written in the bible "There is none righteous, no not one" or the many others referring to mans sin nature?

Please only Catholics or Protestants respond. If you don't believe any of it thats fine but I am really looking for a simple (read: SHORT), biblical answer to this. Preferably in your own words.

Answer 1

The more difficult and biblically unsupportable question should be, "How could the blessed mother of God be a sinner." The theological answer to that is she could not and yet be the mother of God. If she was then Jesus was not he Messiah prophesied in Scriptures. You actually answered your own question....the Scripture referenced does indeed address the sinful nature of man caused by the original sin of Adam. As another answerer addressed, the salvific work of Christ completed on Calvary saved the blessed mother in a miraculous way at her conception transcending time and space to prepare for our Savior. God bless!

In Christ

Fr. Joseph

Answer 2

She wasn't sinless, she was born without original sin.

Answer 3

I will try to keep it short, but I probably will not do the question justice by only highlighting.  

Okay first of all Sr. Lucy is a female. Sr. = (religious) sister.  

“Hail, full of grace” Luke: 1:27. In order to be “full” of grace, you cannot have a sinful nature. The angel recognizes that Mary is abounding and “full” of grace.

As to how it is possible that Mary was conceived without sin, you have to think less in time and space. God is not bound by time and space. This unique and special privilege given to Mary is and was possible because of the crucifixion. Just how Jesus died for your sins before you existed through the sacrifice at Calvary, Mary was saved and preserved from original sin and all sins during her life.

Answer 4

Because it's believed to be unacceptable that Jesus would be born from a woman with sin.

Jesus was not supposed to be a common Man....so it would be understood that His Mother would not be a common Woman.

I'm an Atheist....and I would suggest if you don't buy this....just move on.

Answer 5

Your primary reason has to be that the above attributes are considered infallible articles of faith as Divine Revelation. This authority was granted to the Catholic Church in Matt 16; 18-19. St. Lucy at Tuy has nothing to do with it except to confirm these articles of faith.  

Answer 6

Sister Lucy was one of the children who reported the appearance of Mary at Fatima

Some believe that the term "full of grace" implies that Mary was sinless.

In John 1:14, the Word is termed "full of grace...".

In Acts 6:8 Stephen is described as "full of grace and power..."

In these two places, the Greek words plaras karitos are translated as "full of grace".

Some bibles apply full of grace to Mary, but in Greek the term in the bible that was used was kexaritomena, translated 'Highly favored one"