Whats the answer to this ?

Question

why is this false?

If a recessive gene becomes more prevalent in the population, it becomes the dominant gene?

Answer 1

Wouldn't that just mean that more people (the 'population') have the recessive gene? It's not that individual people have more of that specific gene to make it dominant.

If 20 people have a penny, then the next week 100 people have a penny, that doesn't mean that individual people are suddenly richer with lots of pennies, they still only have 1 each, just more of them have them...

Answer 2

Because it's recessive.

Answer 3

It will not change and become dominant. If the dominant gene is present, it will still cover its effect. It may become more prevalent as choices are made in mating, but it still takes 2 parents with the recessive gene for its effects to show.