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If one parent receives a ruling of being a threat to one of his children by the mother of this child and he has two other children by another woman; does this ruling automatically pertain to the other two children even if they were not involved in the original ruling? So far nothing has been said or addressed about the other two since they live out of state and their mother has not had any type of issues with his actions towards them. But if the ruling is on the father, does that not flow over to all of his children and just not the one child? Please help because I can not seem to get any answers with anyone. Thank you.
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