Now without emotions one way or the other. We now know from the Supreme Court the founding fathers did not mean guns for hunting only, but for protection, and to take back the government should it become unresponsive to the people. Many cities are saying you can have one but it must be inoperable, do you think the right to bear arms means a piece of one, or an unloaded one? If the gun violence is an epidemic, why hasn't the Feds taken the latitude away from Judges that throw out gun possesion for felons, use of a firearm in the commision of a felony, theft of a firearm and make it mandatory to sentence under federal guidelines (10 yrs on top of the time for the crime) like they had to do with drugs over a certain amount. Don't you think the founding fathers meant for lawful citizens to be able to protect themselves, and those who use them in a crime given the mandatory 10 yrs? How many crimes would be commited with a firearm if the crimminal knew he had 10 yrs coming for the 40 bucks he got at the 7-11 on top of the armed robbery charge? Our government, has punished the law abiding citizens for years for the acts of crimminals, now that the issue is closed shouldn't we try another approach to stem gun violence? For the lawers and students of law got one more question, the Sencond Amendment states we have the right to "bear" arms, this means to me to bear means to carry on one's person, not to leave it at home in a lockbox, if you had to argue this case how can it not mean to carry? Otherwise it would have said the right to own a firearm, just the way I understand it. How can one statement become so convoluted.
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