Seriously where are the Aryans (Indo Europeans) from?

Question

i am really confused because some people say that they came from Iran ,and some people they came from Turkey or Germany,where are they really from.

Answer 1

Hi

The term Aryan is a word coined in the 19th century to describe people who spoke languages that were at that time found to be connected: we now call those languages Indo-European and these include Sandskrit (ancient Indian), Turkish, Iranian, most European languages and Slavic (Russian, Croatian etc). Much work has been made into the origins of the original 'super' language from which all these evolved and as you say there is no fixed answer. Iran, Iraq and Turkey are the most likely origins but Germany is not.

The most misunderstood part of Aryan studies is that the language and culture of the original homeland spread into the other areas that now speak similar tongues, the language seems to have been associated with the introduction of farming but it is unlikely that 'Aryan' people spread across Europe but small numbers possibly colonised small pockets and the locals learned from them, which explains how the languages changed slowly in different areas.

Answer 2

yes , i think they from iran .. wen i research i found like this , It is one of the ironies of history that Aryan, a word nowadays referring to the blond-haired, blue-eyed physical ideal of n**i Germany, originally referred to a people who looked vastly different. Its history starts with the ancient Indo-Iranians, Indo-European peoples who inhabited parts of what are now Iran, Afghanistan, and India. Their tribal self-designation was a word reconstructed as *arya– or *rya–. The first of these is the form found in Iranian, as ultimately in the name of Iran itself (from Middle Persian rn (ahr), “(Land) of the Iranians,” from the genitive plural of r, “Iranian”). The variant *rya– is found unchanged in Sanskrit, where it referred to the upper crust of ancient Indian society. These words became known to European scholars in the 18th century. The shifting of meaning that eventually led to the present-day sense started in the 1830s, when Friedrich Schlegel, a German scholar who was an important early Indo-Europeanist, came up with a theory that linked the Indo-Iranian words with the German word Ehre, “honor,” and older Germanic names containing the element ario–, such as the Swiss warrior Ariovistus who was written about by Julius Caesar. Schlegel theorized that far from being just a designation of the Indo-Iranians, the word *arya– had in fact been what the Indo-Europeans called themselves, meaning something like “the honorable people.” (This theory has since been called into question.) Thus “Aryan” came to be synonymous with “Indo-European,” and in this sense entered the general scholarly consciousness of the day. Not much later, it was proposed that the original homeland of the Indo-Europeans had been in northern Europe. From this theory, it was but a small leap to think of the Aryans as having had a northern European physiotype. While these theories were playing themselves out, certain anti-Semitic scholars in Germany took to viewing the Jews in Germany as the main non-Aryan people because of their Semitic roots; a distinction thus arose in their minds between Jews and the “true Aryan” Germans, a distinction that later furnished unfortunate fodder for the racial theories of the n***s. I hope this information helps u

Answer 3

The catholics read the Vaticanus, not the true version, inside the Vatican they read the Vulgate bible, sworn by the Pope as the definitive word of God. which is Aryan, yet there are no documents known of the Aryans! why? because they were all stolen in the Catholic wars with them and in the achieves away from public view.(like another 100,,000 other ones also)

(Only the evil keeps the light from the people!!!)

Seeker of the truth here it is below:

Adam and Eve s not a true story and been distorted in the bible.

Search the "Anunnaki" those who from heaven came and created the "Adamu" earthling in Hebrew.

The Anunnaki females got fed up with breeding the clones, so they decided to give the clones the genes to reproduce(the knowledge of the garden of Eden), when they became to many and rebelled, the anunnaki broke off an ice slab 300k wide, caused a Tsunami and flooded the earth to destroy them(hence the Dead sea was caused-over the mountains thats evaporated) (Zissudra (Enki) son of Anu-known as Noah) took his creation of the clones into the arc) its all in the Sumerian tablets written in cuniform, 2500BC found in Ashurbanipal's (550bc) palace in 1945, read "the lost book of enki" for the full translation of the tablets. also look up Zecharia Sitchin he studied the subject for70 years. the government and church's don't want you to know the truth of creationism, thats why they don't teach it because it undermines their autonomy! also read the Nag Hammadi manuscript found in 1952 (sacred-texts.com) supposedly the actual words of christ, written and hidden by a priest in AD 22 ;) strangely the section called "the origin of creation" is missing" ?? ! I wonder why ! Enlil the other son slept with two of the clones, they had children called Adepa and Titu whio married (as half brother and sisters did then to keep the heirs line) the children they had were called Cain and Abel!!!!!!!!

You have to go back as far as you can to get the actual facts , not the distorted ones they indoctrinate us with through, cultural myth and religious dogma.

now read the other posts and observe how they also bought into that BS as "the truth" when it isn't...sad, seriously sad indoctrinated robots. Seek and ye shall find ;)

Ask you self these 3 questions:

1. If we came here of our own volition, we would be more advanced than we are!

2. If we were brought here, then why are there different races.

3. We were cloned, given there are no paleontological (Bones) records of homos erectus before 120k ago.

I choose 3 and the evidence that stacks up 100% is there

Answer 4

Aryan, which means 'noble', is the ancient version of the name 'Iran'...

They are believed to have originated in the vicinity of what was to become the Persian Empire!

They were warrior tribes who invaded many regions, the Indus River Valley, to name one!

Answer 5

The original Aryans are known as Proto-Indo Europeans aka "Primitive Aryans",  they are believed to have originated from The Indus Valley/ India. From there they spread to the North and into Europe effecting the culture and language of people inhabiting Europe, most present day European languages are derived from the Proto-Aryan, and these languages are classified as Indo-European.

That's actually what the word "Indo" denotes, the ties to the Indus valley.

Answer 6

You can say Iran (Persia) or central Asia. You can also define "Aryan" as a race or a concept.

In the romantic vein:

"In ancient times there lived on the highest elevation of Central Asia a noble race of men called the "Aryan." ..the Indo-European people otherwise known as "Aryans." These "Aryans" are that part of the human race that include the peoples of India, the Hindus, and Persians as well as most European."

http://paganizingfaithofyeshua.netfirms....

The Iranian documentation:

"The Saga of the Aryans is a literary work pertaining to the ancient Zoroastrian religion of Iran, ...Aryans mentioned in the story, set in a time frame of twenty thousand or so years ago, were the original Aryans...noble and tolerant people who considered all races equal"

http://saga.zoroastrianism.com/disclm33....

And a possible scenario:

"Herodotus writes at the same times: "In ancient times, the Greeks called Iranians "Kaffe", but they were renowned as Aryans among themselves and their neighbors". In another part of his book, Herodotus writes that the Medians were known as Aryans during a certain period. So in two of the oldest written human documents, the race of the Iranians have been mentioned as Aryan.

On the other hand, in many contemporary books, one reads that the Aryans were not original residents of the land of Iran, and that they migrated to Iran from Central Asia or somewhere in the north of Europe."

http://www.cais-soas.com/CAIS/Anthropolo...

If the 20,000 years statement is correct, it supposes a group of people maintained their identity for a very long time.

Personal best guess: Aryans (people) came from central Asia. Centuries later, Iran (Persia) endowed them with special powers, skills etc. That created an ancestry that they'd be proud of.

Answer 7

Aryan has multiple connotations as does caucasian.  It isn't the same as Indo-European but the two are often used interchangeably.

Indo-Europen refers to the language family that extends from Europe to India, including most of the languages found in that territory.  There are two major theories about it's origin- the so-called Kurgan theory (Favored by Linguists) and the "Anatolian" theory favored by archaeologists.  The Anatolian theory points to central Turkey as the homeland and posits the spread of language based upon people adopting agricultural practices.  The Kurgan theory posits the homeland in Southwestern Russia or therablouts, and posits the spread of language through pastoralist raiders spreading their language as they swept throug areas trying to add to their territory.