Question:

Squeeze Theorem Help?

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Hi. Can someone help me with this question pertaining to the Squeeze Theorem:

Use the Squeeze Theorem to show that lim x--> 0 of (x^2)(cos20(Pi)(x)) = 0. Illustrate by graphing the functions f(x) = -x^2, g(x) = x^2(cos20Pix), and h(x) = x^2 on the same screen.

Is there any work involved besides just graphing them?

Thank you.

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  1. Well, you could show that at x=0, f(x)≥g(x)≥h(x) and then say that by the Squeeze Theorem, their limits as x->0 are equal.

    -IMP ;) :)  

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