in congressional debates in 1790 about possible abolition of slavery, Georgia representative James Jackson attacked the abolitionist Quakers as "outright lunatics" and went on to say "if it were a crime as some assert, but which i deny, the British nation is answerable for it and not the present inhabitants, who now hold that species of property in question." Does Jackson's refusal to name "that species of property" point to his own moral discomfort with owning enslaved human beings? To what degree were the founders complicit to this deliberate refusal to name and acknowledge the moral problem of slavery?
i got the first question, but the second one i don't understand. i know they're saying "how were the founders involving themselves in the refusal to name the "species"..but i just don't understand how they involved themselves at all?
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